Are magnetic monopoles theoretically possible?

Are magnetic monopoles theoretically possible?

It is impossible to make magnetic monopoles from a bar magnet. If a bar magnet is cut in half, it is not the case that one half has the north pole and the other half has the south pole. A magnetic monopole cannot be created from normal matter such as atoms and electrons, but would instead be a new elementary particle.

Why cant a monopole magnet exist?

As we know current is the source for magnet.So there is no such way to divide or separate the so monopoles does not exist a magnet always exist with dipoles that means a north pole is always comes with a South pole and vice versa .

How is magnetic monopole created?

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Spins tend to align along an externally applied magnetic field, which is the key to the creation of the synthetic magnetic monopole. “A monopole is created in a Bose-Einstein condensate by using an external magnetic field to guide the spins of the atoms forming the condensate.”

Which of the following equation indicates that magnetic monopoles does not exists?

dA =0. Statement-2; Magnetic monopoles do not exist.

Which of the following equation explain the non-existence of magnetic monopole?

The Gauss law for magnetisim which is the equation establishes the non-existence of magnetic monopole.

What would a magnetic monopole be used for?

Practical uses of magnetic monopoles are tricky. If magnetic monopoles can wander through spin ice, then they may be able to flow like electrons in an electric current and be harnessed the same way we harness electricity. Magnetricity could potentially be used as a much more compact form of computer memory.

Which law and how indicates the absence of magnetic monopole?

Discoverers of the law Gauss’s law for magnetism simply describes one physical phenomena that a magnetic monopole does not exist in reality. So this law is also called “absence of free magnetic poles”.

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Which equation will hold a good magnetic material?

Which equation will hold good for a magnetic material? Explanation: We know that the divergence of B is zero. From Stokes theorem, the surface integral of B is equal to the volume integral of divergence of B. Thus surface integral of B is also zero.

Which equation tells us about the existence of magnetic monopole?

Which of the following proves the non-existence of magnetic monopole?

Gauss Law of magnetic field
The equation of Gauss Law of magnetic field i.e. ∇ → ⋅ B → = 0 accounts for the non-existence of magnetic monopole. The divergence of magnetic field density is zero, i.e., magnetic field density is divergence-less or solenoidal. This points out the rotational (curl) property of the magnetic field.

Which of the following equation tells about non existence of magnetic monopole?