Why did Britain take over so many countries?

Why did Britain take over so many countries?

Historians are still arguing about this question! There is no doubt that Britain was powerful. It used its wealth, its armies and its navy to defeat rival European countries and to conquer local peoples to establish its empire. In most of the empire Britain relied heavily on local people to make it work.

How did the British respond to the Boston Tea Party?

The British responded to the Boston Tea Party fiercely. They passed the Coercive Acts and the Quebec Act. Together, they became known in the colonies as the Intolerable Acts.

How did Britain benefit from the Empire?

Trade improved with British East India Company transporting spices, cotton and tea. They traded sugar cane, tea, silk, paintings, art, jewels, sugar,cotton, perfumes and tobacco. The British Empire grew the British economy, it traded their goods and all profits were sent to Britain.

READ:   How do you get oil out of terry cloth?

Why was Britain unhappy with the Treaty of Versailles?

Lloyd George hated the Treaty, He liked the fact that Britain got German colonies, and the small German navy helped British sea-power. But, although many British people wanted to ‘make Germany pay’, Lloyd George thought that the Treaty was too harsh, and that it would start another war in 25 years time.

How did the British government respond to the Boston Tea Party quizlet?

The British responded to the Boston Tea Party by shutting down Boston Harbor. Shortly after that, Parliament passed several intolerable acts.

Why did the British not stop the Boston Tea Party?

If the tea wasn’t unloaded, customs weren’t paid. And if the ships tried to sail back out of port, Montagu would stop them and charge them with failing to pay customs on their cargo that was due, according to him, because they had already entered port.

READ:   Why most Indian trains are blue in colour?

Why was Britain in debt after the French and Indian War?

With the French and Indian War over, many colonists saw no need for soldiers to be stationed in the colonies. Britain also needed money to pay for its war debts. The King and Parliament believed they had the right to tax the colonies.

Did Britain pay for its own oppression in India?

Britain’s rise for 200 years was financed by its depredations in India. By the end of the 19th Century, India was Britain’s biggest cash-cow, the world’s biggest purchaser of British exports and the source of highly paid employment for British civil servants – all at India’s own expense. We literally paid for our own oppression.

Why was India governed for the benefit of the British?

The reason was simple: India was governed for the benefit of Britain. Britain’s rise for 200 years was financed by its depredations in India.

READ:   What is the most popular social networking site?

How did Britain pay for the French and Indian War?

Britain also needed money to pay for its war debts. The King and Parliament believed they had the right to tax the colonies. They decided to require several kinds of taxes from the colonists to help pay for the French and Indian War.

How much did Britain owe India in WW2?

Two and a half million Indians also fought for British forces in the Second World War, by the end of which £1.25bn of Britain’s total £3bn war debt was owed to India, which was merely the tip of the iceberg that was colonial exploitation. It still hasn’t been paid.